Suppose that nothing exists rather than something as per Occam’s Razor. Why should something begin to exist rather than staying in the, prima facie, current logically parsimonious state of nothingness? Let’s tackle this by means of deductive logic.
- Nothingness is a concept (self-evident)
- Concepts can be contemplated (self-evident)
- Therefore, nothingness can be contemplated (inference, from 1 and 2)
- Nothing cannot be contemplated (definition)
- Therefore, nothingness is not nothing (inference, from 3 and 4)
- Thus, something must exist rather than nothing (excluded middle, from 5)
So we can see that there is no such state in which nothing exists. In fact, the very statement nothing exists is illogical. This begs the question, what is the something which first exists?